Date: September 24th, 2018 3:34 AM Author: slimy dilemma
would it be normal for a law firm representing a company to draft an agreement for a transaction between shareholders and then affirmatively deny it's either party's attorney?
it's an spa done to facilitate a larger transaction. and firm reps the company in that transaction. wouldn't normally need company to be party to this spa. but should i add it as one, if i'm putting in the "hey, assholes, we're not your lawyers" notice (which i know we need). technically there are some reps that involve the co. so i could probably add. i just don't know what's normal here. m&a agreement #2- whoo.
(http://www.autoadmit.com/thread.php?thread_id=4085783&forum_id=2#36875609) |